Following on from this thread posted over a year ago (because I didn’t want to resurrect an old thread by posting in it):
I have also encountered the phrase, “to explain what they say they want”, and I too am stumped why it’s
esbonio beth maen nhw’n dweud ŷn nhw’n moyn
(where ŷn = ydyn)
esbonio beth maen nhw’n dweud bod nhw’n moyn
esbonio beth maen nhw’n dweud maen nhw’n moyn
Are these wrong, then, or acceptable alternatives? My response to the English had …bod nhw’n moyn at the end.
Other forum members provided reasons in the original thread about why ŷn is surfacing there, but I can’t say they entirely explain (to me) what’s triggering it. I always thought ŷn/ydyn (and related yw/ydy) was a form of bod used in non-affirmative clauses - i.e. negative and interrogative - so why is it there if there’s no change in meaning or no preceding word (no nag or os) to trigger it?
Atebion ar gerdyn post, plîs.